Long-time listener, first-time caller here. I've got what I guess is a history of math question. I've been teaching a college course on Euclid's Elements (surprisingly fun, btw). I've been using David Joyce's (Joyce is a Professor of Math/CS at Clarke University) online guide to the Elements as a resource, and in his commentary on one theorem (VI.12), he says the following: "Descartes (1591–1661) is well known for his coordinate geometry which he and Fermat developed in the 16th century...[But] Descartes was equally interested is using geometry to solve algebraic problems, though using a method quite distinct from that in the Elements." He then goes on to give some examples (e.g., construct a line whose length is equal to the product of the lengths of two given lines).
On the one hand, it's perfectly clear what is meant. If you can convert a geometrical question into an algebraic one using Cartesian coordinates, then you can presumably convert an algebraic problem into a geometrical one. (Side question: Do we need to place some constraints on the kind of algebraic problem at issue? It's hard to imagine what the geometrical analogue to an algebraic problem involving complex numbers, or one involving more than three variables, would be.) What I've been puzzled about is this: It's perfectly clear why it's useful to convert a geometrical problem into an algebraic one (as anyone who has tried to work through Euclid will be painfully aware). But I struggle to see why it would be useful to be able to do the opposite. Are there examples of problems which are easier to solve in their geometrical form than in their algebraic form? Or does the interest of the topic lie elsewhere? E.g., maybe if we can convert all geometrical questions into algebraic ones and algebraic questions into geometrical ones, that sort of supports the idea that algebra and geometry are different ways of expressing one and the same underling mathematical reality?